10 exam-style questions with answers and explanations, straight from our 1,030-question bank. Tap an answer to check yourself. When you're ready, take the scored version in the free practice test.
The C.Ped exam has 165 questions and runs 3 hours.
These 10 free C.Ped questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the Certified Pedorthist blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.
Early heel rise prompts an ankle range-of-motion examination. With the hindfoot controlled in the same alignment, passive dorsiflexion measures 2 degrees with the knee extended and 16 degrees with the knee flexed. Neither position produces pain or a hard joint stop. Which finding most plausibly accounts for the difference?
Correct answer: D - Gastrocnemius shortening
A patient with diabetes and established sensory neuropathy arrives for new shoes with a two-day history of unilateral midfoot warmth, redness, and swelling. The skin is intact, pedal pulses are palpable, and pain is rated 1 out of 10. Radiographs obtained yesterday showed no fracture. How should the pedorthist handle today's appointment?
Correct answer: A - Coordinate urgent specialist assessment and immediate knee-high immobilization/offloading.
During a 10 g monofilament examination, a patient misses both actual applications over a thick plantar callus and correctly reports no contact during the sham application. Responses at the other tested sites are normal. The examiner has not tested the intact skin next to the callus. Before classifying sensation at this location, the examiner should:
Correct answer: D - Retest adjacent, noncallused skin using actual and sham applications.
An avid walker with physician-diagnosed hallux rigidus has pain during terminal stance whenever the first metatarsophalangeal joint bends. The joint has very little passive dorsiflexion. The shoe already clears the dorsal prominence, and balance is satisfactory. What footwear strategy would reduce the remaining painful motion demand?
Correct answer: D - A sole stiffener combined with a forefoot rocker
A person with a healed, stable transmetatarsal amputation uses a total-contact insert and soft toe filler. The filler prevents forward migration, and ankle motion is adequate. During late stance, however, the shoe folds sharply beyond the residual forefoot and forward progression is difficult. Which addition most directly addresses the missing mechanical function?
Correct answer: A - A full-length stiffening plate with appropriate rocker geometry
At a fitting for mechanical metatarsalgia, a patient reports new focal discomfort beneath the second and third metatarsal heads when walking on the trial orthosis. Transfer marks place the metatarsal pad's apex directly under those heads. Shoe depth is adequate, sensation is intact, and there is no skin injury. The first adjustment should be to:
Correct answer: B - Move the pad proximally, then reassess fit during walking.
Standing Brannock measurements on the larger foot read size 9 1/2 heel-to-toe and size 10 1/2 heel-to-ball. There is no toe deformity. Before checking the shoe's actual fit, which approach should determine the initial size trial?
Correct answer: C - Begin at size 10 1/2, checking width at that setting.
For prescribed knee-high 20-30 mmHg compression, a medically cleared patient's ankle measures 21 cm and calf 43 cm. The selected manufacturer's chart requires both circumferences to fit one size: Small, ankle 19-22/calf 29-35 cm; Medium, ankle 22-25/calf 33-40 cm; Large, ankle 25-28/calf 38-46 cm. Suitable lengths are available. Which fitting decision follows from these measurements?
Correct answer: C - Use another sizing system or a made-to-measure garment.
To evaluate an insole modification for a patient with a healed plantar ulcer, peak pressure at the previous ulcer site is compared with the current therapeutic footwear. It falls from 360 kPa to 240 kPa. Both trials use the same validated, calibrated in-shoe system with 2 cm² sensors and matched walking conditions. Under the IWGDF 2023 definition of demonstrated pressure relief, how should the result be recorded?
Correct answer: B - A 33% reduction; it meets the relative-reduction criterion.
A Medicare beneficiary with diabetes has documented sensory neuropathy and rigid claw toes, but no callus, previous ulcer, amputation, or poor circulation. All other certification, ordering, and documentation requirements for therapeutic shoes are satisfied. A staff member questions coverage because the neuropathy is not accompanied by callus. Which interpretation of the qualifying foot-condition requirement is correct?
Correct answer: A - Claw toes independently meet the foot-deformity qualifying criterion.
The full bank has 1,020 more C.Ped questions with explanations.
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